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ID:
Class: 12
Subject: Math
Topic: Matrices and Determinants
Type: Mcq
Year: 2024
Question:
If \(F(x)=\begin{bmatrix}\cos~x&-\sin~x&0\\ \sin~x&\cos~x&0\\ 0&0&1\end{bmatrix}\) and \([F(x)]^{2}=F(kx)\), then the value of k is :
A.
1
B.
2
C.
0
D.
-2
Official Solution
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